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To The Jew and Gentile?


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#1 Candice

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Posted 01 March 2015 - 08:06 PM

Are there some scriptures that are written TO the Jew, but are FOR us also? Or is all scripture in NT no longer to Jew or Gentile? For instance, does a verse such as the following apply? What is your understanding of this?

For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.

2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.

3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.

4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:

6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.

#2 reader

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Posted 04 March 2015 - 04:27 AM

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: (2Timothy 3:16)

 

Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile; But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile: For there is no respect of persons with God. (Romans 2:9-11)
 
The Bible, God's Holy Word, is for all people.  


#3 Candice

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Posted 04 March 2015 - 12:12 PM

Just quickly...James 1:1
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ,
To the twelve tribes scattered among the nations...
 

Is James specifically writing TO them but it is FOR us today?  It is important to understand context.

 

Every book of the bible has this...context.  Sometimes Jesus speaks to pharisees and sometimes that is not meant to be TO us but is FOR us. 



#4 Kevin Blankenship

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Posted 04 March 2015 - 12:26 PM

Candace, this is a question that has plagued me for a long time. And also, when Jesus pulled the 12 disiciples away from the crowd to talk to them.......was HIS words applicable for us too??  That bugs me. It really does.  I really think that this is a great question.  Should we just take for granted that every word of the Bible (Old and New Testaments) apply to every man? I certainly HOPE that it does. But I'm still not so sure.

   In the scripture: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: (2Timothy 3:16) is the writer referring to the only Scriptures that theu had back then? That would be the Old Testament, as there was no New Testament that was put together at that time.  So my reply doesn't answer any questions. It merely adds a few concerns of mine.  And I certainly don't mean to hijack Candace's post.......because it is so intriguing. I really hope that her thread 'lights up' with replies and answers.  Kevin



#5 Candice

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Posted 04 March 2015 - 12:46 PM

Hi Kevin,

 

Yes, I agree and understand too.  But, this seems like an unimportant topic; focused on semantics only. But, I don't think so because....our bible study teacher says that Jesus was speaking to the disciples specifically about the end-times and that they couldn't not know when the end would be, as Jesus Himself did not know, but "only the Father". But he says Jesus didn't mean that applied to us living now, who can know because it's the end of times.

 

So, I bring up context of other text like Jesus speaking to the pharisees and he says "no" that's not true.  So, I guess it depends on how much you "cherry pick" to get text to support your suppositions.  So, I thought, "wow, I'm way off, again".

 

I believe all text applies to us now, even the OT, but it the cleanliness law, etc. are TO us.  They are for us to see we can't keep the law.  This is just tail-chasing on my part at this point. Hence, no responses but yours Kevin!


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#6 Sold On Sovereignty

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Posted 16 March 2015 - 02:26 PM

Good question and something that I have wondered about to in the past, but my firm beleif is that it is for us even though the context may be for the Jew or Gentile. Contex is important, but if you get caught up in that too much you run the risk of discounting sections of the bible with the assumption that they may not apply to me. For instance, my wife and I are reading the bible in a year using a chronological reading plan. So we are in Deuteronomy right now. There are plenty of passages in Dt and in the Pentatuch in general that are specifically for the Jews, BUT the big picture of the Pentatuch is Christ. He can be seen in all of it. As he is OUR savior as well as fo the Jews, the themes that run through the Pentatuch allpy to us; we must love and obey God, God loves his people, God is sovereign, God provides for his people, etc etc.

 

Another example can be seen in Jonah. Jonah didn't want to see the Ninivites saved. He knew God would do just that. That book was written for a recalcitrant Isreal. BUT we can read it an see that God is calling us to do the same. He is wanting us to share the gospel to people in our lives that we don't like.



#7 Candice

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Posted 29 March 2015 - 06:37 PM

Yes, Sold on Sovereignty, I agree. Amen. Good points.